1. The study of tissues is

a. cytology

b. histology

c. molecular biology

d. microbiology

e. surface anatomy

2. In a negative feedback mechanism, the response of the effect or

a. reverses the original stimulus

b. enhances the original stimulus

c. has no effect on the original stimulus

d. is usually damaging to the body

e. creates a cycle that leads away from homeostasis

3. Covalent bonds form when

a. atomic nuclei fuse

b. molecules become ionized

c. neutrons are transferred from one atom to another

d. protons are lost from atoms

e. electrons are shared between two atoms

4. Reactions that use water to split molecules apart are called _______ reactions.

a. dehydration

b. synthesis

c. hydrolysis

d. reversible

e. oxidation

5. Proteins

a. are the body’s source of immediate energy

b. are the building blocks of nucleotides


provide much of the structure of body cells and tissues

d. contain the genetic information of the cell

e. insulate and cushion the body

6. The plasma membrane

a. separates the nucleus from the rest of the cell

b. is a rigid protein membrane

c. is not permeable

d. has a single layer of phospholipids

e. regulates movement of materials into and out of the cell

7. Channel proteins

a. are binding sites for other molecules

b. utilize the G protein complex to function

c. are found only on endoplasmic reticulum

d. allow cells to recognize one another

e. provide a “door” through which extracellular molecules can enter the cell

8. Which of the following is a function of epithelial tissue?

a. conduction of action potentials

b. secretion and absorption of molecules

c. support of other tissue types

d. contraction

e. shock absorption

9. Adipose tissue


functions as an insulator and a site of energy storage

b. exists in three forms: yellow, red, and brown

c. contains large amounts of extracellular matrix

d. is composed of relatively small cells

e. does not contain lipids

10. Skin color is the result of the

a. quantity of melanin in the skin

b. number of keratinocytes in the skin

c. amount of fat in the hypodermis

d. thickness of the stratum basale

e. number of melanocytes in the skin

11. What does structure “B” represent on the diagram?

a. hair follicle

b. arrector pili

c. dermis

d. hypodermis

e. sebaceous gland

12. When blood calcium levels are low

a. osteoclast activity increases

b. calcitonin secretion increases

c. calcium absorption is reduced

d. bones produce more bone tissue

e. osteoblast activity increases

13. What does structure “A” represent on the bone diagram?


cancellous bone

b. Diaphysis

c. epiphyseal lines

d. articular cartilage

e. epiphysis

14. What does structure “A” represent?

a. frontal bone

b. occipital bone

c. parietal bone

d. sphenoid bone

e. temporal bone

15. The figure illustrates bones of the right upper limb. What does “A” represent?

a. radius

b. carpals

c. phalanges

d. metacarpals

e. ulna

16. The figure illustrates bones of the right lower limb. What does “C” represent?

a. femur

b. fibula

c. tarsals

d. tibia

e. patella

17. The joint between the head of the radius and the proximal end of the ulna is a _____ joint.

a. plane

b. saddle

c. hinge

d. pivot

e. ball and socket

18. What does structure “A” represent on the diagram?

a. tendon

b. articular cartilage

c. bursa

d. fibrous capsule

e. synovial


19. Which of the following is composed of myosin molecules?

a. thick myofilaments

b. I Bands

c. Z disks

d. Sarcolemma

e. tropomyosin

20. What does “B” represent on the diagram?

a. threshold

b. depolarization

c. depolarization phase of action potential

d. repolarization phase of action potential

21. The flexion of the elbow represents a

a. class I lever system

b. class II lever system

c. class III lever system

d. class IV lever system

e. non-lever system

22. Label muscle “A” on the diagram.

a. orbicularis oculi

b. temporalis

c. trapezius

d. sternocleidomastoid

e. masseter

23. What does “A” represent?

a. coracobrachialis

b. deltoid

c. pectoralis major

d. biceps brachii

e. serratus anterior

24. The central nervous system includes the

a. ganglia

b. spinal cord


spinal nerves

d. cranial nerves

e. sensory receptors

25. Identify structure “A” on the neuron.

a. Schwann cell

b. Node of Ranvier

c. neuron cell body (soma)

d. dendrites

e. axon

26. The figure is a process figure of the chemical synapse. What does “C” represent?

a. postsynaptic membrane

b. synaptic cleft

c. synaptic vesicle

d. voltage-gated calcium channel

e. presynaptic terminal

27. Which of the following combinations indicates the correct distribution of spinal nerve pairs?

a. 7 cervical – 12 thoracic – 6 lumbar – 5 sacral – 1 coccygeal

b. 7 cervical – 12 thoracic – 5 lumbar – 6 sacral – 1 coccygeal

c. 8 cervical – 12 thoracic – 6 lumbar – 4 sacral – 1 coccygeal

d. 8 cervical – 12 thoracic – 5 lumbar – 5 sacral – 1 coccygeal

e. 7 cervical – 13 thoracic – 6 lumbar – 5 sacral – 1 coccygeal

28. Label

component “A” on the reflex arc.

a. sensory receptor

b. effector organ

c. sensory neuron

d. motor neuron

e. interneuron

29. A small lesion in the brainstem which resulted in a rapid heart rate, intense vasoconstriction, and elevated blood pressure would probably be located in the

a. medulla oblongata.

b. Pons

c. Cerebellum

d. Hypothalamus

e. cerebrum

30. The corpus callosum

a. consists of a broad band of gray matter

b. is found at the base of the transverse fissure

c. is a band of commissural fibers that connects the right cerebral hemisphere to the left cerebral hemisphere

d. connects the frontal lobe to the occipital lobe

e. connects the frontal lobe to the parietal lobe

31. Which nerve has branches that extend to the thoracic and abdominal viscera?

a. facial nerve

b. vagus nerve

c. trigeminal nerve

d. glossopharyngeal ner

32. Which of the

following is a somatic sense?

a. smell

b. taste

c. touch

d. sound

e. sight

33. Label area “A” on the cerebral cortex.

a. visual cortex

b. primary motor cortex

c. primary somatic sensory cortex

d. motor speech area (Broca’s area)

e. sensory speech area (Wernicke’s area)

33. The figure is a sagittal section of the eye. What does “A” represent?

a. iris

b. pupil

c. lens

d. conjunctiva

e. cornea

34. Which of the following is NOT an effector controlled by the autonomic nervous system?

a. cardiac muscle

b. glands

c. skeletal muscle

d. smooth muscle in blood vessels

e. smooth muscle in the digestive system

35. Identify structure “C” on the bottom diagram.

a. autonomic ganglion

b. somatic motor neuron

c. effector organ (smooth muscle of GI tract)

d. postganglionic neuron

e. preganglionic


36. The endocrine system

a. releases neurotransmitters into ducts

b. secretes chemicals that reach their targets through the bloodstream

c. communicates via frequency-modulated signals

d. contains organs called exocrine glands

e. is isolated from the nervous system

Consider the following events in the intracellular receptor model:
1: Hormone receptor complex binds to DNA.
2: Messenger RNA directs synthesis of specific proteins.
3: Hormone binds to receptors either in cytoplasm or nucleus.
4: Messenger RNA synthesis is activated.
5: Synthesized proteins produce the response of the cell.

37. Which of these events occurs in the nucleus?

a. 1, 3, 5

b. 1, 3, 4

c. 1, 2, 3

d. 3, 4, 5

e. All events occur in the nucleus

38. The hypothalamus

a. rests in the sella turcica

b. is also called the neurohypophysis

c. is located inferior to the pituitary gland


regulates the secretory activity of the pituitary gland

e. is located superior to the thalamus

39. The major secretory products of the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex are

a. glucocorticoids

b. mineralocorticoids

c. androgens.

d. catecholamines

e. cortisol and ADH



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